What on earth are partial sums used for?
More induction!
I have a question about corollary 34.7. If the limit does equal 0, then does a_{n} converge? Both this corollary and theorem 34.6 come very close to saying this, but not quite. Thus, is it not true?
Oh, a note later on in the section answered this. No, the limit equaling 0 does not imply that a_{n} converges.
No comments:
Post a Comment